Community Medicine Question Bank PDF
1) The best method recommended by who for Malaria control in endemic areas is
(A) Regular use of chloroquine
(B) Vaccination
(C) The use of pyrethrum impregnated bed nets
(D) Genetic control of mosquitoes
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
2) In a town with population 1,00,000, a total of 50,000 slides were examined for Malaria in 1 year. Among these 100 cases of Malaria were confirmed. What is the annual parasite incidence of this town?
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.5
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
3) Sparsh leprosy awareness campaign is carried out with the help of
(A) Village health and sanitation committee
(B) USHA (Urban Social Health Activist)
(C) Zilla Parishad
(D) PHC Medical Officer
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
4) Match the prepacked STI/RTI colour coded kits :
(a) Grey Kit 1. Inguinal Bubo
(b) Red kit 2. Lower Abdominal pain
(¢) Yellow kit 3. Genital ulcers
(d) Black kit 4. Urethral discharge
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
5. Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV to an exposed person should ideally be initiated within
(A) 24 hours
(B) Three days
(C) One week
(D) Fourteen days
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
6. Temperature maintained to store messenger RNA Covid-19 vaccine is
(A) –25°C to –15°C
(B) –70°C
(C) + 2°C to + 8°C
(D) –2°C to –8°C
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
7) Which of the following is an important HIV Antigen in determining the early detection of HIV infection?
(A) p24
(B) gp120
(C) Gag gene
(D) Pol gene
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
8) Regarding JE vaccines
1. Live attenuated vaccines are based on the SA 14-14-2 strain
2. The JE vaccine under National Immunisation programme is killed vaccine
3. Under National Immunisation program JE vaccines are used only in Endemic areas
(A) 1 and 2 are true 3 is false
(B) 1 and 3 are true 2 is false
(C) 1 true 2 and 3 are false
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are true
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
9) In an area having annual parasite index of less than 2, the following to be done
(A) Passive surveillance only
(B) 2 rounds of DDT yearly
(C) Entomological surveillance
(D) All positive cases blood smear done monthly
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
10. One of the following is not true regarding transmission of Hepatitis A with respect to route of transmission
(A) Faeco oral route in the major route
(B) Parenteral route is very rare
(C) Sexual transmission occur among homosexual men
(D) Mother to child transmission during delivery/pregnancy in common
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
11. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
1. Culex Quinquefasciatus — Japanese Encephalitis
2. Culex Tritaeniorhynchus — Bancroftian Filariasis
3. Mansonia Uniformis — Brugian Filariasis
4. Aedes Aegypti — Yellow fever
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
12. Which of the following are correct sequence of four stages of malaria parasite in mosquito?
(i) Ookinete
(ii) Zygote
(iii) Oocyst
(iv) Sporozoite
(A) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
13. What are WHO’s 5Cs that apply to all models of hepatitis testing and in
all settings?
(A) Consent, Confidentiality, Correct Test Result, Counselling and Connection
(B) Cleanliness, Confidentiality, Correct Test Result, Clarity, Conclusive
(C) Correctness, Conclusive, Clarity, Consent, Confidentiality
(D) Counselling, Consent, Confidentiality, Clarity, Conclusive
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
14. Arrange the following steps taken in Polio Eradication and Endgame strategic plan in chronological order
(a) Switch from trivalent OPV to bivalent OPV
(b) Plan for eventual withdrawal of all OPV
(C) Introduce at least 1 dose of IPV into all routine immunization system
(A) (a), (b), (c)
(B) (c), (a), (b)
(C) (c), (b), (a)
(D) (a), (c), (b)
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
15. Antiviral therapy for Hepatitis B is initiated when patient has
(i) Persistently Abnormal (ALT) Alanine Transaminase
(ii) Hepatitis B DNA > 20,000 lu/ml
(iii) Cirrhosis
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) if either (ii) or (iii) are present
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
16. Assertion [A] : Radiological Examination of chest is the best method for detect of cases under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme.
Reason [R] : Radiological Examination of the chest is the most reliable diagnostic method.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is true, [R] is false
(D) Both [A] and [R] are false
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
17. Which of the following statements are true about Erythema Nodosum Leprosum?
1. Delayed Hypersensitivity reaction
2. Seen in multibacillary cases only
3. Reactions cause a general feeling of fever and malaise
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
18. In the ancient medicine, “four humors theory” was followed in
(i) Greek medicine
(ii) Indian Medicine
(iii) Mesopotamian medicine
(iv) Chinese medicine
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (iii) only
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
19. A 2 year old male child with acute respiratory infection is assessed in OPD and observed to have Respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, neither chest indrawing nor any noisy breathing and adequately nourished is classified as a case of
(A) Very severe disease
(B) Severe pneumonia
(C) Pneumonia (not severe)
(D) No pneumonia; cough or cold
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
20. The Gold standard test for detecting current SARS-COV-2 infection in a susceptible person is
(A) RT – PCR Test
(B) Rapid Antigen Test
(C) Serological Tests
(D) Chest X-Ray
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
21. One of the following Infection/disease is spread by Droplet infection
(A) Typhoid
(B) Meningococcal Meningitis
(C) Human Immuno Deficiency Virus Disease
(D) Japanese Encephalitis
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
22. The Bedaquiline (Bdq) drug inhibits which enzyme?
(A) Nitro Reductase
(B) ATP Synthase
(C) Alanine Ligase
(D) RNA Polymerase
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
23. Which of the following statements are true about post measles complications?
(i) Persistent Diarrhoea
(ii) Vitamin A Deficiency
(iii) Croup
(A) (i), (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) only
(D) (ii) only
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
24. Match the pair
(a) Health promotion 1. Screening
(b) Health protection 2. Literacy campaigns
(c) Early Diagnosis 3. Environmental Modification
(d) Rehabilitation 4. Family and Social relationships
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
25. Health Education charts serially flashed to a group while delivering a talk is known as
(A) Flannel Graphs
(B) Posters
(C) Flip charts
(D) Exhibits
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
26. The Degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy is known as
(A) Credibility
(B) Comprehension
(C) Interest
(D) Motivation
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
27. 15 members collect and record ideas of each member and finally comes to a decision. Identify the method of discussion.
(A) Panel discussion
(B) Workshop
(C) Brainstorming
(D) Debate
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
28. Which of the following statements is true about Health Education?
(A) It prevents thinking
(B) Behavior centered
(C) Appeals to emotion
(D) Knowledge instilled
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
29. Assertion [A] : Specialization has created problems for traditional doctor-patient relationship
Reason [R] : A specialist is concerned with particular organ or part of a body
(A) [A] is true [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
30. Match the following
(a) Workshop 1. Series of lectures on subject by experts after which
audience are allowed to speak
(b) Symposium 2. Variety of methods like speeches, discussions and may
last for half a day to a week
(c) Role play 3. Series of meetings emphasizing individual work within
group
(d) Seminar 4. Dramatisation of social situation for health education
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
31. An office clerk badly criticized by his superior takes it out on his wife and children on reaching home. This is an example of ———— type of defence mechanism.
(A) Regression
(B) Displacement
(C) Escape mechanism
(D) Compensation
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
32. Which of the following statements are true regarding Kuppuswamy’s socio-economic status scale?
(i) Education, Occupation and Income are calculated
(ii) Used in urban and rural areas
(iii) < 5 score is lower class
(iv) Type of house is taken as a criteria
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
33. The socio economic scale developed and used for rural setup
1. Pareek
2. Modified Kuppusamy
3. Modified B.G. Prasad
4. Kulshreshta
(A) 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
34. The family type in which two (or) more primary families are joined horizontally is
(A) Three generation family
(B) Extended family
(C) Joint family
(D) Nuclear family
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
35. Arrange the following stages of family cycle in chronological sequence (Basic model of a nuclear family)
1. Formatio
2. Dissolution
3. Extension
4. Contraction
5. Complete extension
6. Complete contraction
(A) 1 – 5 – 4 – 6 – 3 – 2
(B) 1 – 3 – 5 – 4 – 6 – 2
(C) 1 – 6 – 4 – 5 – 3 – 2
(D) 1 – 4 – 3 – 6 – 5 – 2
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
36. Which of the following is NOT an example for temporary social groups?
(A) Crowd
(B) Mob
(C) Herd
(D) Band
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
37. Match the following :
Type of learning Association
(a) Cognitive learning 1. Skills
(b) Affective learning 2. Knowledge
(c) Psychomotor learning 3. Attitudes
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 2 1 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 1 3 2
(D) 1 2 3
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
38. When a new idea or acquired behaviour becomes part of His/Her own existing values, it is called
(A) Conviction
(B) Evaluation
(C) Internalization
(D) Interest
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
39. Match the following :
(a) Sociology 1. Study of physical, social, and cultural history of man
(b) Anthropology 2. Learned behaviour which has been socially acquired
(c) Psychology 3. Study of human behaviour, attitudes and motivation
(d) Culture 4. Study of human relationship
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
40. Which is not a part of vital statistics?
(A) Registration of Birth
(B) Registration of Death
(C) Registration of patients in hospital
(D) Registration of marriage
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
41. Dual record system consisting of continuous enumeration of birth and death. By an enumerator and an independent survey every six months by an investigator is called
(A) (SRS) Sample Registration System
(B) Census
(C) CVIL Registration System
(D) NFHS
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
42. Match the following pairs correctly
(a) Continuous data 1. Gender
(b) Discrete data 2. Socio economic status
(c) Nominal data 3. Body temperature
(d) Ordinal data 4. Number of students in class
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: A
43. The correlation coefficient ‘r’ for correlation between weight and blood pressure was noted to be +0.75. It can be inferred as
1. There is a strong positive correlation between weight and blood pressure
2. There is a weak positive correlation between weight and blood pressure
3. Increase in weight is the cause for increase in blood pressure
4. ‘r’ value can be 0 or +1, hence repeat study with higher sample size
(A) 2 and 4 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) only 4 is correct
(D) only 1 is correct
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
44. The diastolic blood pressure of 10 individuals are : 91, 79, 88, 84, 81, 83, 88, 93, 78, 85. The median diastolic blood pressure is
(A) 850
(B) 88
(C) 85
(D) 84.5
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
45. The best graphical method for representing a data to “Man in Street” is
(A) Bar diagram
(B) Pie diagram
(C) Pictogram
(D) Line diagram
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
46. The following are true about standard normal curve EXCEPT
(A) The mean, median and mode coincide
(B) Standard deviation is 0.1
(C) Area under the curveis is 1
(D) It is a bell shaped curve
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
47. Continuous data are best presented by
(A) Bar chart
(B) Pie chart
(C) Pictogram
(d) Histogram
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
48. Not required for Chi-square test
(A) Null hypothesis
(B) Degree of freedom
(C) Means in different groups
(D) Proportion in different groups
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: C
49. Assertion [A]: In a prevalent disease like diabetes for which treatment does not markedly alter outcome specificity must be high.
Reason [R] : Health system will be over burdened by the diagnostic demands of the positives both true positives and false positives.
(A) [A] is true But [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: B
50. Lead time refers to time between
(A) Disease onset and first critical diagnosis
(B) Disease onset and first possible point of detection
(C) First possible point of detection and first critical diagnosis
(D) First point of detection and usual time of detection
(E) Answer not known
ANSWER KEY: D
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